If the Greeks sought to uproot the Jewish holidays & Jewish calendar, why did they specifically target Rosh Chodesh? What does Rosh Chodesh symbolize that was so antithetical to Greek culture?

What are teshuva and kapara – are they one and the same or are they different? If they are different then how do they differ & how do we achieve each one?

The Rambam says that “complete Teshuva” is achieved when you are in the exact same situations with all the conditions as when you sin but you refrain from sinning, Why is this so? Why does the Rambam discuss the concept of free-will in hilchot teshuva?

According to the Rambam, the actual mitzvah of Teshuva is viduy (confession). Other rishonim, including the Ramban, hold Teshuva itself is a mitzvah. How could it be that according to the Rambam there is no positive commandment to do teshuva? What is Teshuva as opposed to Viduy?

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The Rambam says that we gain atonement via Teshuva today since there is no Beit HaMikdash to offer korbanot. If we can gain teshuvah through atonement then why is there need for korbanot in the first place – the process of bringing a korban also involved viduy (confession)?

Why did the Rambam place Hilchot Teshuva in Sefer HaMada, the book that deals with the fundamentals of Judaism? Is it because Teshuva is fundamental to Judaism or because it deals with fundamental issues such as free will?

What is the Rambam’s approach to the commandment of Teshuva in the Mishna Torah? How does he formulate it and in what context does he place it?

Make the most out of the month before the high holidays. You can accomplish a lot in a month. All God asks of us is to be better today than we were yesterday, to focus on present, not to worry about the future.

Why did Moshe have to be at Har Sinai for 40 days and nights to receive the second luchot – he learned it the first time!?! What did he learn that was new?