I recently read an article, The New Anti-Semitism: Graffiti on the Walls of History (http://www.un.org/Pubs/chronicle/2004/issue4/0404p34.html), while studying for a research paper. Admittedly, I do not know much about Jewish history or Jewish culture, so I started to look up words in the dictionary to have a better understanding of what I was reading. When I read the definition of Semitic and tried to apply it to the article I was reading, I was confronted with a problem. The definition from http://www.thefreedictionary.com/semitic seems to include people from Arab decent. More specifically the Arab definition found at http://www.thefreedictionary.com/arab stated that an Arab is “a member of a Semitic people…”
Based on these definitions the word anti-Semitism could refer to hostility directed toward people groups who can trace their heritage back through to a proto-Semitic point in history. But contrary to this logic Mr. Zuckerman says in his article “The new anti-Semitism is not exclusively hostile to this or that individual Jew, or to Judaism. It is directed primarily against the Jewish collective, the modern State of Israel.” Wouldn’t Mr. Zuckerman’s statement refer to more toward anti-Zionism than anti-Semitism?
Thank you,
Steve
